UPSC Static Quiz, 12th April 2023

Correct Answer: B
Explanation
• Option b is the correct answer.
• Article 368 in Part XX of the Constitution deals with the powers of Parliament to amend the
Constitution and its procedure.
• Statement 1 is correct. The bill regarding the amendments to the Constitution can be introduced
either by a minister or by a private member (any Member of Parliament who is not a minister). It also
does not require prior permission of the President.
• Statement 2 is incorrect. The bill concerning constitutional amendment must be passed in each House
by a special majority, that is, a majority of the total membership of the House and a majority of twothirds of the members of the House present and voting.
• But in case of amending the federal provisions of the Constitution then it must be ratified by the
legislature of half the states by a simple majority. Thus, not in all the cases, consent of half the states is
needed.
• Statement 3 is incorrect. After duly passed by both the Houses of Parliament and ratified by the state
legislatures, where necessary, the bill is presented to the President for assent. The President must give
his assent to the bill. He can neither withhold his assent to the bill nor return the bill for reconsideration
of the Parliament. After the president’s assent, the bill becomes an Act (i.e., a constitutional amendment
act) and the Constitution stands amended in accordance with the terms of the Act.

Correct Answer: C
Explanation
• Option C is the correct answer.
• The Provisions of the Panchayats (Extension to the Scheduled Areas) Act, 1996 (PESA) is a legislation
which extends the provisions of Panchayats to the Fifth Schedule Areas. Total ten States are covered
under PESA. These States are: Andhra Pradesh, Chhattisgarh, Gujarat, Himachal Pradesh, Jharkhand,
Madhya Pradesh, Maharashtra, Odisha, Rajasthan and Telangana.
• Statement 1 and 2 is correct. Following legal powers have been given to Gram Sabha/PRIs under PESA
Act:
I. Safeguard and preserve the traditions and customs of the people, their cultural identity, community
resources and the customary mode of dispute resolution.
II. Approve plans, programmes and projects for social and economic development before such plans,
programmes and projects are taken up for implementation by the Panchayat at the village level.
III. Identification or selection of persons as beneficiaries under the poverty alleviation and other
programmes.
IV. Certification of utilisation of funds by the Panchayat for the plans, programmes and projects for
identification or selection of persons as beneficiaries under the poverty alleviation and other
programmes.
V. Right to be consulted before making acquisition of land in the Scheduled Areas for development
projects and before re-settling or rehabilitating persons affected by such projects in the Scheduled
Areas.
VI. Right to plan and manage minor water bodies in the Scheduled Areas.
VII. Recommendations prior to grant of prospecting licence or mining lease for minor minerals and for
grant of concession for the exploitation of minor minerals by auction in the Scheduled Areas.
VIII. Power to enforce prohibition or to regulate or restrict the sale and consumption of any intoxicant.
IX. Ownership of minor forest produce.
X. Power to prevent alienation of land in the Scheduled Areas and to restore any unlawfully alienated
land of a Scheduled Tribe.
XI. Power to manage village markets.
XII. Power to exercise control over money lending to the Scheduled Tribes.
XIII. Power to exercise control over institutions and functionaries in all social sectors.
XIV. Power to control over local plans and resources for such plans including tribal subplans.
• Statement 3 is incorrect. PESA Act provides power to exercise control over money lending to the
Scheduled Tribes (and not Scheduled castes) to the Gram Sabha. Source)

Correct Answer: D
Explanation
• Option D is the correct answer.
• Right to Information Act 2005 mandates timely response to citizen requests for information. It was
amended in 2019 to change the conditions of services of CIC and ICs.
• Statement 1 is incorrect. RTI Act, 2005 provided that the Chief Information Commissioner (CIC) and
Information Commissioners (ICs) (at the central and state level) will hold office for a term of five years.
• RTI (Amendment) Act, 2019 removed this provision and states that the central government will notify
the term of office for the CIC and the ICs.
• Statement 2 is incorrect. RTI Act, 2005 provided that the salary of the CIC and ICs (at the central level)
will be equivalent to the salary paid to the Chief Election Commissioner and Election Commissioners,
respectively. Similarly, the salary of the CIC and ICs (at the state level) will be equivalent to the salary
paid to the Election Commissioners and the Chief Secretary to the state government, respectively.
• RTI (Amendment) Act, 2019 removed these provisions and states that the salaries, allowances, and
other terms and conditions of service of the central and state CIC and ICs will be determined by the
central government.
• Statement 3 is incorrect. The RTI Act, 2005 states that at the time of the appointment of the CIC and
ICs (at the central and state level), if they are receiving pension or any other retirement benefits for
previous government service, their salaries will be reduced by an amount equal to the pension.
• The RTI (Amendment) Act, 2019 removed these provisions.

Correct Answer: B
Explanation
• Option B is the correct answer.
• The Vice President is a part of the Central Executive and has provisions dealing with it in Part V of the
Indian Constitution Statement a is incorrect. The VP, like the President is elected through indirect
elections. However, there are some major differences in the composition of the electoral college
electing them both. In the election of the President, only the elected members of both the Houses of the
Parliament as well as the
• Legislative Assemblies take part. However, in the election of the VP, both the elected as well as
nominated members of both the Houses of the Parliament (not the Legislative Assemblies) take part.
• Statement B is correct. Any disputes related to the election of the VP are heard and decided by the
Supreme Court only. And its verdict in the matter is final as well.
• This is unlike the cases regarding elections of MPs and MLAs, which are decided by the President and
the Governor respectively, on the advice of the Election Commission.
• Statement C is incorrect. Unlike the process in America, in India, when the office of the
President falls vacant due to unforeseen circumstances like death, etc, The VP only “Acts” as the
President for the intermittent period, until someone else is duly elected as the President. This person
may be the VP, but there is no provision for automatic succession of the VP as the President in case of a
vacancy.
• Statement D is incorrect. A VP doesn’t need to be impeached. He may simply be removed from his
office by the passage of a resolution to that effect by the members of the Rajya Sabha by an Effective
Majority (Majority of all the then members in the House) (not simple Majority). It must be agreed to by
the Lok Sabha.

Correct Answer: B
Explanation
• Option B is the correct answer.
• The concept of positive and negative liberty has been propounded by philosopher JS Mill.
• Statement 1 is incorrect. Negative liberty’ seeks to define and defend an area in which the
individual would be inviolable, in which he or she could ‘do, be or become’ whatever he or she
wished to ‘do, be or become’. This is an area in which no external authority can interfere. It is a
minimum area that is sacred and in which whatever the individual does, is not to be interfered
with. The existence of the ‘minimum area of non- interference’ is the recognition that human
nature and human dignity need an area where the person can act unobstructed by others. How
big should this area be, or what should it contain, are matters of discussion, and will continue to
be matters of debate since the bigger the area of non-interference the more the freedom.
• Statement 2 is correct. Positive liberty recognises that one can be free only in society (not
outside it) and hence tries to make that society such that it enables the development of the
individual. It is concerned with looking at the conditions and nature of the relationship between
the individual and society and of improving these conditions such that there are fewer constraints
to the development of the individual personality. The individual to develop his or her capability
must get the benefit of enabling positive conditions in material, political and social domains. That
is, the person must not be constrained by poverty or unemployment; they must have adequate
material resources to pursue their wants and needs.